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I was wondering if anyone could explain the theoretical reason (ie derive the
expression for the probability) why the optimal solution for the secretary problem
with n=100 is equal to 100/exp(1) and the probability is (1/exp(1))*100

Robert Israel tend to be good at these kind of things....:-)

The problem can be stated as follows (wikipedia):

 1. There is a single secretarial position to fill.
 2. There are n applicants for the position, and the value of n is known.

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